Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.

2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide is associated with hypotension as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension while receiving this medication, such as dizziness, light-headedness, or low blood pressure readings. Prompt recognition and management of hypotension can help prevent complications and ensure the client's safety during treatment with etoposide.

3. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. Platelet count
• C. BUN
• D. PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.

4. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food to reduce nausea.
• B. Take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Take the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alendronate should be taken first thing in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize absorption. Taking it with food, milk, or meals can reduce its effectiveness by impairing absorption. Therefore, advising the client to take it on an empty stomach is crucial for optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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