Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

3. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?

• A. Lispro (Humalog)
• B. NPH (Humulin N)
• C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
• D. Glargine (Lantus)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.

4. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication cannot be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

5. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

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