ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
- B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
- C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
- D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine carries a risk for fatal agranulocytosis. To monitor for this serious adverse effect, it is crucial to check the client's white blood cell count weekly while they are on clozapine therapy.
4. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this and instruct them to report it to the healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring the client's heart rate regularly is essential to detect and manage toxicity promptly. Choice B, Hypertension, is incorrect as Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia and not hypertension. Choices C and D, Hypoglycemia and Hypercalcemia, are also incorrect as they are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity.
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