Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.

2. A client returning from the surgical suite following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and asking for something to drink. Her post-op diet prescription reads: 'clear liquids, advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient?

• A. ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.''
• B. ''You need to wait until the surgeon evaluates your condition.''
• C. ''You can have clear liquids, but let me check with the surgeon first.''
• D. ''It is best to start with small sips of clear liquids and observe how you feel.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.'' Listening to the abdomen helps assess bowel sounds and ensure that the client’s gastrointestinal system is ready for oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need to wait for the surgeon to evaluate before starting with clear liquids. Choice C is incorrect because unless there are specific contraindications, clear liquids are usually allowed after surgery. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate assessment needed before initiating oral intake post-operatively.

3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

4. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

• A. 4-5 times per hour
• B. 2-3 times per hour
• C. 6-7 times per hour
• D. 8-10 times per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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