Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.

2. A client is admitted for evaluation and control of HTN. Several hours after the client's admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse's first reaction at this time is to:

• A. Establish an airway
• B. Call for assistance
• C. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure
• D. Perform CPR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is found unresponsive on the floor, the nurse's first priority is to establish an airway. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and receive oxygen. Without a patent airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation may be compromised, leading to serious consequences. Calling for assistance is important, but establishing an airway takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's ability to breathe. Checking the client's pulse and blood pressure can be done after ensuring a clear airway. Performing CPR is not the immediate action needed unless the client's breathing and pulse are absent after the airway has been secured.

3. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

• A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
• B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
• C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
• D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

4. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

• A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
• B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
• C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
• D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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