ATI RN
Proctored Nutrition ATI
1. What is considered an acceptable LDL cholesterol level for children and adolescents?
- A. Less than 70 mg/dL
- B. Less than 110 mg/dL
- C. Less than 129 mg/dL
- D. Less than 170 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An LDL cholesterol level of less than 110 mg/dL is considered acceptable and healthy for children and adolescents. This level helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an LDL cholesterol level below 110 mg/dL is the recommended target for children and adolescents to maintain good heart health.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing moderate metabolic alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor daily hemoglobin and hematocrit values.
- B. Administer furosemide (Lasix) intravenously.
- C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- D. Teach the client fall prevention measures.
Correct answer: Teach the client fall prevention measures.
Rationale:
3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
4. Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, which results in a reduced ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice D, Pericarditis, refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the lining surrounding the heart, and does not involve enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle.
5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?
- A. Between 96% and 98%
- B. Approximately 98.5%
- C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
- D. Nearly 100%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.