Nursing Elites

1. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

2. Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Enkephalin
• C. Norepinephrine
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?

• A. Food diary
• B. 24-hour recall
• C. Kilocalorie count
• D. Nutrient surveillance record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.

4. Which of the following groups of vitamins are fat-soluble?

• A. vitamins B and C
• B. vitamins A and C
• C. vitamins B, E, K, D
• D. vitamins A, E, K, D

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: vitamins A, E, K, and D. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and can be stored in the body's fatty tissue. Vitamins B and C are water-soluble vitamins and are not stored in the body; any excess amounts are usually excreted in the urine. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

5. A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribed?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via nasogastric tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Soft residue diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of severe dysphagia following a CVA, the client may have difficulty swallowing and require alternative nutritional support. Providing supplements via a nasogastric tube allows for the delivery of essential nutrients directly into the stomach, bypassing the swallowing difficulties. NPO (nothing by mouth) until dysphagia subsides may be too restrictive for the client's nutritional needs. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition is usually reserved for cases where enteral feeding is not possible or contraindicated. A soft residue diet may not be suitable for a client experiencing severe dysphagia.

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