Nursing Elites

1. Which type of nutritional deficiency results from inadequate absorption?

• A. Unmeasurable
• B. Primary deficiency
• C. Secondary deficiency
• D. Codependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary deficiency. A nutritional deficiency resulting from decreased intake is called a primary deficiency. On the other hand, a secondary deficiency refers to a vitamin deficiency caused by inadequate absorption or use, increased requirements, excretion, or destruction. Choice A, 'Unmeasurable,' is incorrect as it does not describe a type of nutritional deficiency. Choice B, 'Primary deficiency,' is incorrect as it refers to a deficiency caused by decreased intake, not inadequate absorption. Choice D, 'Codependent,' is incorrect as it is unrelated to the context of nutritional deficiencies.

2. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?

• A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
• B. Continuing feeding
• C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
• D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary needs by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as being the lowest in phosphorus?

• A. Medium apple
• B. Bran cereal
• C. Scrambled eggs
• D. Ground turkey

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a medium apple. Apples are a suitable option for clients with chronic kidney disease as they are low in phosphorus. Bran cereal (choice B), scrambled eggs (choice C), and ground turkey (choice D) are all higher in phosphorus content compared to apples, making them less ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

4. How is the equalization of solute concentration of intracellular fluids (ICFs) and extracellular fluids (ECFs accomplished?

• A. Semipermeable membranes.
• B. Hydration.
• C. Osmotic pressure.
• D. Perspiration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure within the body equalizes the solute concentration of ICFs and ECFs by shifting small amounts of water in the direction of higher concentration solute. Semipermeable membranes separate one fluid compartment from another and do not directly equalize solute concentrations. Hydration and perspiration are important elements of fluid balance but do not directly achieve the equalization of solute concentrations between ICFs and ECFs, which is primarily regulated by osmotic pressure.

5. What is the most likely demonstration of cardiac cachexia?

• A. Decreased physical activity
• B. Weight loss and tissue wasting
• C. Poor urine output and tissue edema
• D. Cardiac arrhythmia and wet lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cardiac cachexia is a condition characterized by severe weight loss and tissue wasting. This typically occurs in patients suffering from heart failure due to an increased energy expenditure and reduced appetite, which is why choice B is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the symptoms of cardiac cachexia. Decreased physical activity (choice A) can be a result of many conditions, not specifically cardiac cachexia. Poor urine output and tissue edema (choice C) are more indicative of kidney problems rather than cardiac cachexia. Finally, cardiac arrhythmia and wet lung sounds (choice D) are symptoms related to other cardiac conditions, not specifically to cardiac cachexia.

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