Nursing Elites

1. Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

• A. CSF provides immune protection to the brain and spinal cord by serving as a physical barrier.
• B. CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury.
• C. CSF plays a limited role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and brain.
• D. CSF functions primarily as a medium for the transmission of nerve impulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.

2. When assessing a 7-year-old child's pain after an emergency appendectomy, what is the most appropriate tool for the nurse to use?

• A. Use a visual analog scale (VAS) to assess the pain.
• B. Ask the child to rate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. Use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the pain.
• D. Ask the parents to describe the child's pain behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the child's pain. This scale is specifically designed for children and uses facial expressions of varying intensities to help them communicate their pain levels effectively. Choices A and B may not be as suitable for a young child who may have difficulty understanding or using a numerical scale. Choice D involving parents may not provide an accurate reflection of the child's pain experience, as it is essential to assess the child's self-reporting.

3. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

• A. Inflammation
• B. Maturation
• C. Remodeling
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

4. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.

5. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

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