Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a cause of edema?

• A. Decreased plasma proteins
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dehydration
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased plasma proteins. Edema can be caused by decreased plasma proteins, which reduce the osmotic pressure that keeps fluid in the blood vessels. Hypotension (choice B) is low blood pressure and is not a direct cause of edema. Dehydration (choice C) involves a lack of body fluid, but it is not a direct cause of edema. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and not a direct cause of edema.

2. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.

3. Which of the following tests is recommended for lung cancer screening?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Pulmonary function test
• C. Computed tomography (CT) scan
• D. Magnetic resonance imaging

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Computed tomography (CT) scan. When screening for lung cancer, CT scans are recommended over chest X-rays due to their higher sensitivity in detecting lung nodules and early-stage cancers. Pulmonary function tests are not used for screening lung cancer but rather to assess lung function. Magnetic resonance imaging is not the preferred imaging modality for routine lung cancer screening, as CT scans are more commonly used.

4. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

• A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
• B. is a sickle cell carrier.
• C. has sickle cell anemia.
• D. has thalassemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the person is a sickle cell carrier. In HbAS, 'Hb' stands for hemoglobin, 'A' indicates normal hemoglobin, and 'S' indicates the sickle cell trait. Individuals with HbAS are carriers of the sickle cell trait but do not have sickle cell disease. Choice A is incorrect because having the sickle cell trait means carrying the gene for sickle cell disease. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is a different condition where individuals have two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene, resulting in the disease. Choice D is incorrect because thalassemia is a separate genetic disorder affecting the production of hemoglobin, not related to the sickle cell trait.

5. A patient taking oral contraceptives reports breakthrough bleeding. What should the nurse assess in this patient?

• A. Adherence to the medication schedule
• B. The possibility of pregnancy
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding can be a sign of missed doses or inconsistent timing, which can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Assessing the patient's adherence helps in ensuring proper use of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because breakthrough bleeding is more likely related to adherence issues rather than pregnancy, the need for increased dosage, or the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive.

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