ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?
- A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
- B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.
2. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?
- A. Phagocytic, interferon, and complement systems.
- B. Complement, fibrinolytic, and clotting systems.
- C. Complement, clotting, and kinin systems.
- D. Complement, clotting, and acute phase reactant systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.
3. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
4. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?
- A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
- B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
- C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
- D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.
5. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?
- A. Pulmonary edema
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Reduced cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.
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