ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Where are most body fluids located?
- A. Intravascular space.
- B. Intracellular space.
- C. Extracellular space.
- D. Transcellular space.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Most body fluids are located within cells in the intracellular space. While the extracellular space also contains body fluids, the majority is found within the cells. Intravascular space refers to fluids within blood vessels, and transcellular space includes fluids in compartments like cerebrospinal, pleural, and peritoneal cavities.
2. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Pain and tissue damage
- C. Increased limb function
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.
3. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Herpes simplex II virus
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.
4. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who worked as a taxi driver most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can lead to COPD at a young age, even in light smokers. Choice B is less likely as the patient's occupation does not directly correlate with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice C, a 70-year-old woman with a long smoking history, is more likely to have COPD due to smoking rather than alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice D, exposure to secondhand smoke, is not a common cause of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency-related COPD.
5. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?
- A. 1 to 2 weeks
- B. 3 to 6 weeks
- C. 4 to 12 weeks
- D. 15 to 18 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.
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