ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased urine flow
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.
2. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?
- A. White blood cell levels with differential
- B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
- C. Urea and creatinine levels
- D. Liver function panel
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.
3. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Spoon-shaped nails
- C. Gait problems
- D. Petechiae
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.
4. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
- B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
- C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
- D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.
5. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
- A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
- B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
- C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
- D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.
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