ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased urine flow
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.
2. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?
- A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
- B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
- C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
- D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.
3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?
- A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
- B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
- C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
- D. Estradiol (Estrace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with an astrocytoma. The client asks, 'What do astrocytes do in the brain?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Astrocytes help to nourish and support neurons in the brain.
- B. Astrocytes are a type of neuron that transmit electrical signals.
- C. Astrocytes are involved in immune responses in the brain.
- D. Astrocytes help regulate blood flow in the brain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Astrocytes play a crucial role in supporting and nourishing neurons by providing metabolic support, maintaining the blood-brain barrier, and regulating the chemical environment of the brain. While astrocytes are essential for brain function, they are not neurons and do not transmit electrical signals (Choice B). Astrocytes are not primarily involved in immune responses in the brain (Choice C) or in regulating blood flow in the brain (Choice D), although they indirectly influence blood flow through their support functions.
5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?
- A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
- B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
- C. Changes in speech and reasoning
- D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.
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