which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

2. A healthcare provider reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The healthcare provider would be most concerned about which finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low white blood cell (WBC) count in an older patient is concerning as it indicates a potential compromise in the patient's immune function. White blood cells are crucial for fighting infections and a low count could lead to an increased risk of infections. Hematocrit, hemoglobin, and platelet count are important parameters to assess, but a low WBC count takes priority in this case due to its direct impact on immune health.

3. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the health care provider about this.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

5. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.

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