Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac unit recovering from a cardiac bypass graft procedure. The patient's spouse comes out to the hallway and expresses concern about the patient's confusion since surgery was 3 days ago. An appropriate response by the nurse would be:

• A. Let me call the doctor right away.
• B. What specific concerns do you have?
• C. It is common for confusion to occur after this procedure.
• D. I'll have the counselor come meet you in the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because confusion can be a common occurrence after cardiac surgeries due to factors such as anesthesia, medication, and the stress of the procedure. By acknowledging the spouse's concern and explaining that confusion is a known potential outcome, the nurse provides reassurance and education. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the spouse's concern about the patient's confusion or provide appropriate information about the situation.

2. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

3. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

4. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the

• A. Schilling test
• B. bilirubin level
• C. gastric analysis
• D. stool occult blood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.

5. The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hemoglobin level.' Pallor of the skin and nail beds is a sign of anemia, which is characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Anemia is a condition where there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Checking the hemoglobin level would help confirm the presence and severity of anemia, guiding further diagnostic and treatment interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because platelet count, neutrophil count, and white blood cell count are not typically associated with the pallor of the skin and nail beds, which are more indicative of an underlying anemic condition.

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