the health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash which action should the nurse take before
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.

2. When providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis, what is important for the nurse to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. In sickle cell crisis, pain is the most common symptom and is usually managed with large doses of continuous opioids. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important, but limiting fluids may not be necessary. Encouraging ambulation (Choice C) is generally good but may not be the priority during a sickle cell crisis. Educating the patient about nutrition (Choice D) is important for overall health but may not be the immediate focus during a crisis.

3. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In severe hemolytic anemia, the priority nursing intervention is to alternate periods of rest and activity. This approach helps to balance activity levels to prevent excessive fatigue while promoting mobility and preventing complications such as muscle weakness or deconditioning. Providing a diet high in vitamin K (choice A) is not directly related to managing hemolytic anemia. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury (choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Placing the patient on protective isolation (choice D) is not indicated for hemolytic anemia, as it is not a contagious condition.

4. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.

5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

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