ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?
- A. Hematocrit of 46%
- B. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL
- C. Elevated reticulocyte count
- D. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
- B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
- C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
- D. Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.' After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Proper hand hygiene and avoiding contact with sick individuals are crucial to prevent infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes, watching for excessive bleeding or bruising, and taking iron supplements are not specifically related to the increased infection risk post-splenectomy.
3. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?
- A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
- B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
- C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
- D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.
4. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia?
- A. Avoid intramuscular injections
- B. Check temperature every 4 hours
- C. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet
- D. Place a 'No Visitors' sign on the door
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check temperature every 4 hours.' Neutropenic patients have a weakened immune system due to low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight infections. Monitoring the patient's temperature every 4 hours is crucial because the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is often a fever. This allows for early detection of any potential infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding intramuscular injections, omitting fruits or vegetables from the diet, and placing a 'No Visitors' sign on the door are not specific actions directly related to managing neutropenia or monitoring for signs of infection.
5. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
- A. Potential complication: seizures
- B. Potential complication: infection
- C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
- D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.
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