Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

2. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the

• A. Schilling test
• B. bilirubin level
• C. gastric analysis
• D. stool occult blood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.

3. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

4. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

5. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?

• A. Hematocrit of 46%
• B. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL
• C. Elevated reticulocyte count
• D. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.

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