Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

2. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?

• A. Check for any iodine allergy.
• B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter.
• C. Administer prescribed sedatives.
• D. Assist the patient to a flat position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.

3. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections
• B. Check temperature every 4 hours
• C. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet
• D. Place a 'No Visitors' sign on the door

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check temperature every 4 hours.' Neutropenic patients have a weakened immune system due to low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight infections. Monitoring the patient's temperature every 4 hours is crucial because the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is often a fever. This allows for early detection of any potential infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding intramuscular injections, omitting fruits or vegetables from the diet, and placing a 'No Visitors' sign on the door are not specific actions directly related to managing neutropenia or monitoring for signs of infection.

4. After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
• C. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
• D. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.

5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

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