ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
- B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
- C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
- D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.
2. The nurse is educating a patient who was discharged from the hospital after having cardiac surgery one week ago. The nurse recognizes the patient understands medication management when he/she states:
- A. I need to take my Lisinopril daily to reduce my risk of heart failure
- B. I only need to take the metoprolol when I feel my heart skip a beat
- C. I should carry my nitroglycerin pills in my pocket at all times
- D. I should only take the pain pills when my pain is really bad
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is commonly prescribed post-cardiac surgery to manage blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart failure. It is important for the patient to take Lisinopril daily as prescribed to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as metoprolol is usually prescribed on a regular schedule to manage heart conditions, not just when symptoms occur. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be kept in a cool, dry place, not in a pocket where it could be exposed to heat or moisture. Choice D is incorrect as pain medication should be taken as prescribed for adequate pain control, not just when pain is severe.
3. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
- A. Potential complication: seizures
- B. Potential complication: infection
- C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
- D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:
- A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
- B. Increasing preload.
- C. Decreasing cardiac output.
- D. Decreasing afterload.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.
5. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
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