Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

2. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?

• A. Hematocrit of 46%
• B. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL
• C. Elevated reticulocyte count
• D. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.

3. A patient is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
• B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
• C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Wash hands and avoid individuals who are ill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Washing hands and avoiding contact with individuals who are ill are crucial to reduce this risk. Choice A is incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority after a splenectomy. Choice B is incorrect as while bleeding is a concern, it is more immediate post-operatively. Choice C is incorrect as iron supplements do not specifically relate to the risk of infection post-splenectomy.

4. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

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