ATI RN
ATI Mental Health
1. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.
- A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
- B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
- C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
- D. They are protective devices for the superego.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Excessive worry
- D. Mania
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.
3. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
- A. The DSM-5 includes information on cultural considerations.
- B. The DSM-5 is a tool for healthcare providers.
- C. The DSM-5 is not used for legal purposes.
- D. The DSM-5 includes information on the prevalence of mental disorders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
4. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Lithium
- C. Clozapine
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected substance use disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not expect?
- A. Neglect of responsibilities
- B. Increased tolerance to the substance
- C. Withdrawal symptoms when not using the substance
- D. Unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Findings in a client with substance use disorder typically include neglect of responsibilities, withdrawal symptoms when not using the substance, and unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use. Increased tolerance to the substance is a common phenomenon in substance use disorder and is expected as the individual requires higher doses to achieve the same effect.
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