Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• B. Compulsive behaviors
• C. Delusions of grandeur
• D. Avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), common findings include recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve having an exaggerated sense of power, importance, or identity, are not typically associated with OCD. It is important to differentiate between the specific characteristics of OCD and other mental health conditions to provide accurate care and interventions for clients.

3. A nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. I should avoid caffeine because it can increase my anxiety.
• B. I can stop taking my medication once I feel better.
• C. Practicing deep breathing exercises can help reduce my anxiety.
• D. I should gradually face situations that cause me anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Statements indicating a need for further teaching include stopping medication once feeling better and believing that medication will always be needed. Medication should be continued as prescribed, and the need for it should be regularly re-evaluated by a healthcare provider.

4. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Sexual dysfunction
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a commonly reported side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs can affect sexual function by causing issues such as decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, erectile dysfunction, or anorgasmia. Patients should be educated about these potential side effects when starting SSRIs to facilitate informed decision-making and appropriate management strategies. Incorrect Choices: A) Hypotension is not a common side effect of SSRIs. C) Increased appetite is not a common side effect of SSRIs. D) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of SSRIs.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
• C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
• D. Manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.

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