a nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder gad which of the following statements by the client indicates a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Statements indicating a need for further teaching include stopping medication once feeling better and believing that medication will always be needed. Medication should be continued as prescribed, and the need for it should be regularly re-evaluated by a healthcare provider.

2. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.

3. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

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