Nursing Elites

1. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to support the client's recovery?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to maintain a regular sleep schedule.
• C. Encourage the client to set realistic goals for daily activities.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings of sadness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, encouraging the client to set realistic goals for daily activities can be beneficial. Setting achievable goals can provide structure, a sense of accomplishment, and help in breaking tasks into manageable steps, which can support the client's recovery process. Options A and B, while important in managing bipolar disorder, may not directly address the client's depressive symptoms during this episode. Option D, encouraging the client to express feelings of sadness, is not as effective as setting achievable goals in providing structure and a sense of accomplishment during a depressive episode.

2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?

• A. Fluoxetine
• B. Citalopram
• C. Paroxetine
• D. Escitalopram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.

3. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

4. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?

• A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
• B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
• C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
• D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

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