ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to support the client's recovery?
- A. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
- B. Encourage the client to maintain a regular sleep schedule.
- C. Encourage the client to set realistic goals for daily activities.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings of sadness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, encouraging the client to set realistic goals for daily activities can be beneficial. Setting achievable goals can provide structure, a sense of accomplishment, and help in breaking tasks into manageable steps, which can support the client's recovery process. Options A and B, while important in managing bipolar disorder, may not directly address the client's depressive symptoms during this episode. Option D, encouraging the client to express feelings of sadness, is not as effective as setting achievable goals in providing structure and a sense of accomplishment during a depressive episode.
2. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.
3. Which is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering immunizations to prevent disease
- B. Conducting health screenings to detect early signs of disease
- C. Providing rehabilitation services to prevent complications
- D. Educating the public about healthy lifestyle choices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Conducting health screenings to detect early signs of disease is an example of secondary prevention. This strategy focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or health issue. By identifying potential health problems at an early stage, individuals can receive timely treatment and management, thereby reducing the risk of complications and improving health outcomes.
4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Individual training. This category involves the specific task of preparing soldiers for battlefield survival, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario. Choice A, Accountability, focuses on being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which is not directly related to training soldiers. Choice B, Personal/professional development, pertains to personal growth and career advancement, not specific training for battlefield survival. Choice D, Military appearance/physical condition, deals with the physical aspects and presentation of soldiers, not the training required for battlefield survival.
5. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
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