which of the following statements about the dsm 5 is inaccurate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

2. Natasha's husband died suddenly two months ago, and she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When individuals experience a significant loss, such as the death of a loved one, it can trigger major depressive disorder. This is because the intense grief and sadness associated with the loss can lead to the development of depressive symptoms. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is accurate in this context.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.

4. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

5. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

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