Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?

• A. I have been on this antidepressant for 3 days. I understand that the full effect may take weeks to occur.
• B. I am going to ask my nurse practitioner to discontinue my Prozac today and let me start taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.
• C. I may ask to have my medication changed to Wellbutrin due to the problems I am having being romantic with my wife.
• D. I realize that there are many antidepressants and it might take a while until we find the one that works best for me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.

2. A patient with bipolar disorder has been prescribed lithium. Which dietary advice is important for the nurse to include?

• A. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
• C. Increase protein intake.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to prevent fluctuations in lithium levels. Salt intake can impact lithium levels, and sudden changes in salt intake can affect how the body absorbs and excretes lithium. Therefore, advising the patient to maintain a stable salt intake is crucial for the effectiveness and safety of lithium therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in tyramine is more relevant for patients taking MAOIs, not lithium. Increasing protein intake or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific dietary recommendations for patients on lithium therapy.

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

4. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

5. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

Similar Questions