Nursing Elites

1. When an individual's stress response is sustained over a long period of time, which physiological effect of the endocrine system should one anticipate?

• A. Decreased resistance to disease
• B. Increased libido
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased inflammatory response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When stress is prolonged, the body reaches the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, where compensatory mechanisms fail, and diseases of adaptation may occur. One physiological effect includes a decreased immune response, leading to decreased resistance to disease. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Increased libido (choice B) is not a typical physiological effect related to prolonged stress. Decreased blood pressure (choice C) is not commonly associated with sustained stress. Increased inflammatory response (choice D) may occur in the short term due to stress, but over a prolonged period, the immune system's function weakens, leading to decreased resistance to disease.

2. A client with borderline personality disorder exhibits self-mutilating behavior. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss underlying issues.
• B. Set firm limits on the client's behavior.
• C. Provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm.
• D. Discuss the consequences of self-mutilating behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when dealing with a client exhibiting self-mutilating behavior, especially with borderline personality disorder, is to provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm. This approach is crucial in ensuring the client's physical safety and well-being. Setting firm limits may be appropriate in some situations, but the immediate priority is to prevent self-harm. Encouraging the client to discuss underlying issues and discussing consequences are important aspects of therapy; however, in the case of acute self-mutilating behavior, the primary focus should be on creating a safe environment to prevent harm.

3. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

• A. Has a high potential for abuse.
• B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
• C. Does not cause sedation.
• D. Is used for short-term treatment only.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Paralysis of a limb
• B. Auditory hallucinations
• C. Dissociative amnesia
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.

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