a nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder which outcome should indicate that the medi a nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder which outcome should indicate that the medi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.

3. Which of the following nonpharmacological methods cannot be used to manage the chronic pain of a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct answer: Ice for 2 hours at a time

Rationale:

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.

5. Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the heart muscle, often due to a viral infection, leading to impaired heart function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Myocarditis. Myocarditis is an inflammation of the heart muscle, typically caused by a viral infection. It can impair the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently, potentially leading to other complications. Endocarditis (choice B) is an inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Pericarditis (choice C) is inflammation of the pericardium, the outer lining of the heart. Cardiomyopathy (choice D) is a disease of the heart muscle that affects the heart's ability to pump blood.

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