Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Excessive worry
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of situations or activities, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, distinguishing it as a key feature of GAD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), not GAD. Hallucinations are not typically seen in GAD but may be present in conditions like schizophrenia. Compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not GAD.

2. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Ask the client to describe the content of the hallucinations.
• B. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• D. Engage the client in reality-based activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, especially in schizophrenia, is to assess the content of the hallucinations. By asking the client to describe the hallucinations, the nurse can determine if they are command hallucinations that might pose a risk. This assessment is crucial in guiding further appropriate interventions to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice B) may not be effective, as the hallucinations are real to the client. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice C) may be necessary but should come after assessing the situation. Engaging the client in reality-based activities (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when dealing with auditory hallucinations.

5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

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