Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Excessive worry
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of situations or activities, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, distinguishing it as a key feature of GAD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), not GAD. Hallucinations are not typically seen in GAD but may be present in conditions like schizophrenia. Compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not GAD.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

• A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
• B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
• C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
• D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

4. During an acute panic attack, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings
• B. Provide a calm environment
• C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises
• D. Leave the client alone to calm down

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute panic attack, the priority intervention is to create a calm and safe environment. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises is crucial as it promotes relaxation and reduces hyperventilation, helping to manage the panic attack effectively. Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings may exacerbate the panic by increasing emotional distress. Providing a busy environment can escalate stress levels rather than alleviate them. Leaving the client alone may lead to feelings of abandonment or worsen the panic attack. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to teach deep breathing exercises to help the client regain control and manage the panic attack.

5. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

Similar Questions