Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. What is the correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Administer subcutaneously
• B. Administer intramuscularly
• C. Administer intravenously
• D. Administer orally

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes is to administer it subcutaneously. Insulin is typically injected into the fatty tissue just below the skin, allowing for a slow and consistent absorption into the bloodstream. Administering insulin intramuscularly (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates and potential complications. Administering insulin intravenously (Choice C) is only done in specific medical settings and not for routine diabetes management. Administering insulin orally (Choice D) is ineffective as the stomach acid would break down the insulin before it can be absorbed.

3. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

4. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
• B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
• C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with removal
• D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving monitoring.
• B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has diabetes and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.

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