Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm³
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

2. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

4. What is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?

• A. Intramuscular
• B. Intradermal
• C. Subcutaneous
• D. Intravenous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate route of administration for insulin is subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for insulin administration due to the slower absorption rate compared to intramuscular or intravenous routes. This slower absorption rate allows for better control of blood glucose levels. Intramuscular administration is not ideal for insulin as it can lead to rapid absorption and fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Intradermal injections are shallow and used for skin testing rather than insulin administration. Intravenous administration of insulin is not recommended due to the rapid and unpredictable effects it can have on blood glucose levels.

5. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?

• A. Gtt.
• B. Gtts.
• C. Dp.
• D. Dr.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.

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