a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which action should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

3. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

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