a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which action should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

3. What is the best way to monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the central line site daily. Monitoring the central line site daily is crucial in detecting early signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, tenderness, or drainage. By checking the site regularly, healthcare providers can take prompt action to prevent complications. Choice B, monitoring the patient's vital signs, while important in assessing overall health, may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line. Choice C, checking the central line dressing every other day, may not be frequent enough to catch early signs of infection. Choice D, checking for signs of sepsis, is important but represents a more severe stage of infection and may occur after local signs at the central line site have already manifested.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.

5. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

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