Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.

2. A client who has a prescription for insulin glargine is talking to a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will mix this insulin with my regular insulin before injecting it.
• B. I will store this insulin in the refrigerator after opening it.
• C. I will take this insulin twice a day.
• D. I will inject this insulin when my blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin glargine should be stored in the refrigerator after opening to maintain its potency. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins. Choice C is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically taken once a day. Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is usually taken regardless of blood glucose levels.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will stop taking this medication if my heart rate is below 80/min.
• B. I should take my pulse before taking this medication.
• C. I should stop taking this medication if my pulse is above 100/min.
• D. I will take this medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking digoxin should check their pulse before each dose to ensure it is within the appropriate range. Option A is incorrect because stopping the medication based solely on a heart rate below 80/min is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as having a pulse above 100/min doesn't necessarily indicate a need to stop digoxin. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with an antacid as it can interfere with its absorption.

5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.

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