ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in seclusion when she is confused.
- B. Request a prescription for PRN restraints when the client is wandering.
- C. Dim the lighting in the client's room.
- D. Leave one side rail up on the client's bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to dim the lighting in the client's room. Dim lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to feelings of isolation and distress. Requesting PRN restraints (Choice B) should be avoided in clients with Alzheimer's as it can increase agitation and pose safety risks. Leaving one side rail up on the client's bed (Choice D) may not directly address the client's confusion and wandering behavior.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?
- A. Check for skin turgor
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check for dry mucous membranes
- D. Monitor urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.
3. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
- B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
- C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
- D. What helps you ignore the voices?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.
5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a CT scan
- C. Perform a lumbar puncture
- D. Administer anticoagulants
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.
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