Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer opioids routinely for chronic pain.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness.
• D. Avoid physical activity to prevent joint damage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with osteoarthritis is to apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness. Heat application helps improve circulation, relax muscles, and reduce discomfort in joints affected by osteoarthritis. Administering opioids routinely (Choice A) is not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis and carries risks of dependency and side effects. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) may lead to muscle weakness and reduced joint flexibility. Avoiding physical activity altogether (Choice D) can lead to further joint stiffness and compromised overall health.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat a bedtime snack if my blood sugar is below 200 mg/dL.
• B. I will eat more sugar-free candy to help control my blood sugar.
• C. I will check my blood sugar every morning before breakfast.
• D. I will avoid physical activity if my blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Cough with frothy sputum.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jugular vein distention. In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle fails to efficiently pump blood to the body, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure can lead to symptoms like jugular vein distention, as blood backs up in the pulmonary circulation and causes congestion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, cough with frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema which can occur in left-sided heart failure but is not as specific as jugular vein distention, and dependent edema is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure due to fluid retention and increased venous pressure in the systemic circulation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
• B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Provide a low-sodium diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

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