a nurse is providing care to a client who has thrombocytopenia which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is providing care to a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reduces the need for straining during bowel movements, and ultimately decreases the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as flossing daily does not directly address the issue of bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice B is incorrect as removing fresh flowers from the client's room is more related to the risk of infection rather than bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding serving raw vegetables does not directly impact the risk of bleeding in clients with thrombocytopenia.

2. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

5. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.

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