which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.

2. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

3. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

4. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

5. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, monitoring liver function tests is essential due to the potential for liver dysfunction. Estradiol can affect liver function, making it crucial to monitor enzyme levels. Choice A, blood glucose levels, is not directly impacted by estradiol therapy, making it an incorrect choice. Choice C, kidney function tests, is not typically affected by estradiol therapy, so it is not the priority for monitoring. Choice D, blood pressure, is also not the primary parameter to monitor during estradiol therapy unless there are pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

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