Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.

2. When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis, what important instruction should the nurse provide about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals.
• C. Discontinuing medroxyprogesterone should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily rather than weekly for the treatment of endometriosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate for endometriosis, it is essential to maintain consistent hormone levels by taking the medication at the same time each day. This consistency helps optimize the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals, not necessarily with food. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful and may not address side effects appropriately. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily to manage endometriosis symptoms, not weekly, to ensure continuous therapy and symptom control.

3. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

• A. Ferritin
• B. Gastric enzymes
• C. Intrinsic factor
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a newborn. Before administering the vaccine, the nurse should

• A. warm the vaccine to room temperature.
• B. gently cleanse the chosen injection site.
• C. check the infant's temperature.
• D. administer the full dose at a single injection site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a vaccine to a newborn, it is essential for the nurse to check the infant's temperature. This is important to ensure that the newborn does not have a fever, which could indicate an underlying infection or illness. Warming the vaccine to room temperature is not necessary and could be harmful. Vigorously massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and tissue damage. Dividing the dose for administration to three injection sites is not standard practice for vaccine administration to a newborn.

5. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.

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