Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being educated about sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?

• A. I can take this medication with nitroglycerin.
• B. This medication can cause an erection lasting more than 4 hours.
• C. I should not take this medication if I am taking medications containing nitrates.
• D. This medication is safe to take with any over-the-counter medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil should not be taken with medications containing nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because priapism (prolonged erection) is a serious side effect but does not require immediate intervention like severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it correctly identifies a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice D is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe to take with sildenafil, and interactions can occur.

2. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?

• A. The inner layer (archilayer)
• B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
• C. The outer layer (neolayer)
• D. The reticular formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

4. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

• A. CD4 helper T cells
• B. CD8 helper T cells
• C. CDC cells
• D. CDC10 cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.

5. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

Similar Questions