in which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

2. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.

3. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

4. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dark urine. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can cause the urine to appear dark or tea-colored, a condition known as myoglobinuria. This is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present as direct symptoms of rhabdomyolysis. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, bone pain is not a primary symptom of rhabdomyolysis, and diarrhea is not a common complaint associated with this condition.

5. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.

Similar Questions

An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:
A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?
When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?
The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses