ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
- B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
- D. The client shows no change in behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).
2. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.
3. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
- B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
- C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
- D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.
4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
5. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?
- A. 3.7
- B. 1.7
- C. 2.6
- D. 1.3
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access