Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).

2. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.

4. Which of the following are common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Insomnia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs. Therefore, the correct answer is C. While some individuals may experience weight changes while taking SSRIs, weight loss is less common compared to weight gain as a side effect of these medications.

5. A client has been prescribed sertraline for depression, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed sertraline should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Sertraline, an antidepressant belonging to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class, can interact with tyramine-rich foods, potentially causing a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific dietary restriction related to sodium, calcium, or potassium intake when taking sertraline.

Similar Questions