Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).

2. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare professional can use when interacting with clients? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Using silence
• B. Offering self
• C. Giving advice
• D. Providing reassurance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote understanding and trust between the professional and the client. Using silence allows the client to process thoughts, feelings, and information. Offering self involves making oneself available and showing empathy. Providing reassurance helps instill confidence. However, giving advice can sometimes be non-therapeutic as it may undermine the client's autonomy and decision-making process.

3. A client with borderline personality disorder exhibits self-mutilating behavior. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss underlying issues.
• B. Set firm limits on the client's behavior.
• C. Provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm.
• D. Discuss the consequences of self-mutilating behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when dealing with a client exhibiting self-mutilating behavior, especially with borderline personality disorder, is to provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm. This approach is crucial in ensuring the client's physical safety and well-being. Setting firm limits may be appropriate in some situations, but the immediate priority is to prevent self-harm. Encouraging the client to discuss underlying issues and discussing consequences are important aspects of therapy; however, in the case of acute self-mutilating behavior, the primary focus should be on creating a safe environment to prevent harm.

4. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?

• A. It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.
• B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?
• C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.
• D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.

5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

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