Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently.
• B. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities.
• C. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks.
• D. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.

2. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?

• A. Restating
• B. Encouraging description of perception
• C. Summarizing
• D. Asking 'why' questions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.

3. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

4. A client has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize during discharge instructions?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid foods high in tyramine. Clients taking MAOIs should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Tyramine is found in aged, fermented, or spoiled foods. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium, calcium, and sodium restrictions are not specifically required for clients taking MAOIs.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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