Nursing Elites

1. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Weight loss
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Extrapyramidal symptoms, such as tremors and rigidity, are frequently observed as side effects of antipsychotic medications. These symptoms result from the medications' influence on dopamine receptors in the brain. Choice A, hyperactivity, is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choice B, weight loss, is less common compared to weight gain. Choice D, insomnia, though possible, is not as prevalent as extrapyramidal symptoms in individuals taking antipsychotic medications.

3. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

• A. Lithium
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B: Alprazolam

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

4. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

5. A client is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. Which question will help the nurse develop nursing diagnoses for this client’s plan of care?

• A. Are you satisfied with your appearance?
• B. Do you take medication for anxiety as prescribed?
• C. When did you last feel detached from your environment?
• D. How long have you had these memory problems?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with somatic symptom disorder, it is crucial to assess their adherence to medication for anxiety as prescribed. This question helps the nurse understand the client's treatment compliance, which can impact the development of nursing diagnoses and the overall plan of care. Monitoring medication adherence is essential in managing the client's symptoms and improving outcomes.

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