Nursing Elites

1. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

2. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

3. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

4. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

5. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, and there are long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in: Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Children of color and poor economic conditions being underserved
• B. Increased stress in the family unit
• C. Markedly increased funding
• D. Premature termination of services

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The lack of resources in pediatric mental health leads to underserved populations, increased stress in the family unit, and premature termination of services. However, markedly increased funding does not align with the negative consequences of resource shortages; instead, it would be a potential solution to address the lack of resources and providers in pediatric mental health.

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