Nursing Elites

1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication as needed for anxiety.
• B. I need to avoid eating aged cheeses.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone (Buspar) may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed.

2. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?

• A. Appearance and behavior
• B. Giving advice
• C. Mood and affect
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.

3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to detect and manage this side effect to prevent associated health risks such as diabetes and cardiovascular issues. Hypotension (choice B) is not a common side effect of olanzapine. Olanzapine is more likely to cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Hair loss (choice C) and hyperthyroidism (choice D) are not typically associated with olanzapine use.

4. When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypervigilance
• B. Insomnia
• C. Flashbacks
• D. Suicidal ideation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with PTSD commonly exhibit symptoms such as hypervigilance, insomnia, flashbacks, difficulty concentrating, and increased irritability. Hypervigilance refers to an enhanced state of awareness and alertness, often seen in individuals with PTSD as they are constantly on guard for potential threats. Insomnia is a common sleep disturbance associated with PTSD, where individuals may have trouble falling or staying asleep. Flashbacks involve re-experiencing the traumatic event as if it is occurring in the present moment. Suicidal ideation, while a serious concern in mental health, is not a hallmark symptom specifically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct finding that the nurse should expect when assessing a client diagnosed with PTSD is hypervigilance.

5. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

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