a client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone buspar which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the med
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone (Buspar) may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed.

2. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.

3. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

4. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a depressive episode, the nurse should implement interventions that promote mental well-being. Encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation are all essential components of care. Discouraging verbalization of feelings is counterproductive as it hinders the therapeutic process and communication, which are crucial for the client's emotional expression and recovery.

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