Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?

• A. Hemorrhage
• B. Pain and tissue damage
• C. Increased limb function
• D. Chronic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.

2. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?

• A. White blood cell levels with differential
• B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
• C. Urea and creatinine levels
• D. Liver function panel

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.

3. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

4. Which of the following statements characterizes irritable bowel syndrome?

• A. Typically does not cause anemia
• B. Not generally associated with intestinal E. coli
• C. Can be associated with anxiety and/or depression
• D. Not often associated with bloody diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. While IBS can lead to symptoms like diarrhea or constipation, it typically does not cause anemia (choice A), is not generally associated with intestinal E. coli (choice B), and is not often associated with bloody diarrhea (choice D). However, IBS can indeed be associated with anxiety and/or depression (choice C) due to the gut-brain axis, a bidirectional communication system between the gut and the brain. This association is well-documented in IBS patients, highlighting the importance of considering psychological factors in managing the condition.

5. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

• A. A blow to the head from a hard object
• B. Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
• C. Excessive exercise, such as running
• D. A ruptured artery in the heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.

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