ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
2. A male patient with erectile dysfunction has asked for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Before giving this medication, the nurse should assess for which of the following conditions?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Recent history of a stroke
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil should not be used by patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure. Assessing for the use of nitrates is crucial to avoid this potentially dangerous interaction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically contraindications for the use of sildenafil. While a history of hypertension should be considered, it is not as critical as the use of nitrates when prescribing sildenafil.
3. A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What should the nurse emphasize about the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures effectiveness.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary emphasis of consistent timing is on hormone levels and effectiveness, not on reducing breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because while consistent absorption is a factor, the main focus is on maintaining stable hormone levels. Choice D is incorrect as missing doses can significantly impact contraceptive efficacy.
4. A nurse is educating a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid walking for long periods to prevent leg pain.
- B. I should inspect my feet daily for any sores or wounds.
- C. I should wear compression stockings to improve circulation.
- D. I should avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my arteries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Walking is crucial in improving circulation in peripheral artery disease; therefore, the client should not avoid walking for long periods. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements for a client with PAD. Inspecting feet daily helps in early detection of sores or wounds, wearing compression stockings improves circulation, and avoiding smoking helps prevent further damage to arteries in PAD.
5. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access