ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
2. A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Constipation
- B. Dizziness
- C. Headache
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about ways to reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Rest in bed for long periods
- B. Use sequential compression devices
- C. Avoid leg exercises
- D. Keep legs crossed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use sequential compression devices.' Sequential compression devices help prevent DVT by promoting venous return, reducing stasis in the veins, and preventing blood clot formation. Resting in bed for long periods (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Avoiding leg exercises (Choice C) is also not recommended as mobilization and exercises can help prevent blood clots. Keeping legs crossed (Choice D) can impede blood flow and is not advisable in reducing the risk of DVT.
4. How many liters are equal to 1800 ml?
- A. 1.8
- B. 18000
- C. 180
- D. 2800
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To convert milliliters (ml) to liters, divide by 1000 since 1 liter is equal to 1000 ml. Therefore, 1800 ml is equal to 1800/1000 = 1.8 liters. Choice A (1.8) is correct. Choice B (18000) is incorrect as it equates to 18000 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice C (180) is incorrect as it represents 180 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice D (2800) is incorrect as it does not reflect the conversion of 1800 ml to liters.
5. Which is the best description of a full-liquid diet?
- A. Most suitable for individuals with an ileostomy
- B. Suitable for individuals with lactose intolerance
- C. Contains low saturated fat and high fiber
- D. Provides adequate nutrients and is easily digested
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a full-liquid diet is designed to provide adequate nutrients while being easily digested. Choices A and B are incorrect because a full-liquid diet is not specifically tailored for individuals with an ileostomy or lactose intolerance. Choice C is also incorrect as it describes characteristics that are not defining features of a full-liquid diet.
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