Nursing Elites

1. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

2. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Increased hair growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, which helps alleviate symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. Choice B, decreased blood pressure, is incorrect because finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure. Choice C, increased urinary output, is incorrect as finasteride does not typically increase urine production. Choice D, increased hair growth, is incorrect as the primary use of finasteride is not for promoting hair growth but rather for treating BPH.

3. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infections
• D. Increased energy and strength

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased energy and strength. Leukemia and lymphoma typically present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, increased risk of bleeding, and increased risk of infections. Patients with these conditions often experience a lack of energy and strength due to the disease's impact on the body. Therefore, increased energy and strength are not typical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma.

5. Macular degeneration occurs as a result of:

• A. loss of lens accommodation
• B. detachment of the retina
• C. increased intraocular pressure
• D. impaired blood supply leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, a part of the retina responsible for central vision. It is primarily caused by impaired blood supply to the macula, leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia. This results in the death of photoreceptor cells and ultimately vision loss. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because macular degeneration is not related to the loss of lens accommodation, detachment of the retina, or increased intraocular pressure. The correct answer directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of macular degeneration.

Similar Questions