a hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

2. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone can cause:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: adrenal crisis. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, resulting in adrenal crisis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the adrenal glands' ability to produce cortisol. Abrupt withdrawal can cause a sudden drop in cortisol levels, leading to adrenal crisis with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening low blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercortisolism refers to excess cortisol levels, ACTH stimulation would not result from prednisone withdrawal, and thyroid crisis is not directly related to corticosteroid discontinuation.

3. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.

4. What property is found in clients with metastatic cancer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic cancer is characterized by cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metastatic cancer is associated with aggressive behavior where cells invade and spread to other parts of the body, rather than being well encapsulated, growing slowly, or being genetically stable.

5. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.

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