Nursing Elites

1. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

• A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
• B. is a sickle cell carrier.
• C. has sickle cell anemia.
• D. has thalassemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: HbAS indicates sickle cell trait, not full-blown sickle cell anemia. Choice A is incorrect because HbAS indicates the presence of the sickle cell trait. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is characterized by HbSS, not HbAS. Choice D is incorrect as thalassemia is a different type of hemoglobin disorder not indicated by HbAS.

2. Cellular swelling is:

• A. Irreversible
• B. Evident early in all types of cellular injury
• C. Manifested by decreased intracellular sodium
• D. None of the above is correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cellular swelling is indeed evident early in all types of cellular injury. This occurs due to the influx of water into the cell, leading to swelling. Choice A is incorrect because cellular swelling is reversible if the injury is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because cellular swelling is not manifested by decreased intracellular sodium; in fact, it is associated with increased intracellular sodium due to water influx. Choice D is incorrect as option B is the correct statement.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?

• A. “Flomax can increase the amount of urine your kidneys produce, resulting in better urine flow.”
• B. “Flomax can relax your prostate and your bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine.”
• C. “Flomax makes your urine less alkaline, reducing the irritation that makes your prostate swell.”
• D. “Flomax increases the strength of your bladder muscle and results in a stronger flow of urine.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.

5. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

• A. High sugar, low-fat diet
• B. Increased physical activity
• C. Tobacco use
• D. Low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

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