ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient's antiretroviral therapy has not been as efficacious as her care team had predicted, and maraviroc (Selzentry) has consequently been added to her drug regimen. The nurse should recognize this drug as belonging to what category of antiretroviral?
- A. Fusion protein inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. CCR5 antagonists
- D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Women with a history of breast cancer should avoid hormone replacement therapy due to the increased risk of cancer recurrence.
2. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:
- A. Subacute thyroiditis.
- B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
- C. Graves disease.
- D. Hashimoto’s disease.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.
3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
- A. Iron supplementation
- B. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Vitamin B12 supplementation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, anemia commonly occurs due to decreased erythropoietin production. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin, are the mainstay of treatment to stimulate red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is more appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia, not the anemia of chronic kidney disease. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe cases or acute blood loss. Vitamin B12 supplementation is indicated for megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not specifically in chronic kidney disease-related anemia.
5. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
- A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
- C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
- D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.
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