Nursing Elites

1. A patient's antiretroviral therapy has not been as efficacious as her care team had predicted, and maraviroc (Selzentry) has consequently been added to her drug regimen. The nurse should recognize this drug as belonging to what category of antiretroviral?

• A. Fusion protein inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. CCR5 antagonists
• D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Women with a history of breast cancer should avoid hormone replacement therapy due to the increased risk of cancer recurrence.

2. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?

• A. Monitor liver function tests regularly.
• B. Monitor renal function tests regularly.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
• D. Monitor complete blood count (CBC) regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy. Androgen therapy can impact liver function, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests to assess any potential adverse effects on the liver. Renal function tests (choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy and do not need specific monitoring for this treatment. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are more relevant in conditions like diabetes or with medications affecting blood sugar, not typically in androgen therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (choice D) is not directly impacted by androgen therapy and is not a priority for monitoring in this context.

3. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Histamine
• C. Bradykinin
• D. Nitric oxide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinin is the correct answer. It is a potent mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and is responsible for the pain associated with inflammation. Serotonin and histamine are also mediators of inflammation, but they are not primarily known for increasing capillary permeability or inducing pain. Nitric oxide is involved in various physiological processes but is not a primary mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and pain.

4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

5. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.

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