ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
2. What information should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent with Crohn disease (CD)?
- A. How to cope with stress and adjust to chronic illness
- B. Preparation for surgical treatment and cure of CD
- C. Nutritional guidance and prevention of constipation
- D. Prevention of spread of illness to others and principles of high-fiber diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Teaching about coping with stress and adjusting to chronic illness is crucial for adolescents with Crohn disease. CD is a chronic condition with no cure, so focusing on managing the disease, stress, and diet is essential for improving the adolescent's quality of life. Choice B is incorrect because Crohn disease cannot be cured surgically. Choice C is relevant but not as essential as coping with stress and chronic illness. Choice D is not a priority in teaching an adolescent with Crohn disease as it mainly focuses on preventing the spread of illness to others, which is not a significant concern with CD, and high-fiber diets may not always be suitable for individuals with this condition.
3. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the infusion.
- B. Call the provider.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed.
- D. Auscultate breath sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.
4. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.
5. What is the primary objective of care for the child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?
- A. Reduce blood pressure
- B. Lower serum protein levels
- C. Minimize excretion of urinary protein
- D. Increase the ability of tissue to retain fluid
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary objective in managing MCNS is to minimize the excretion of urinary protein, which is responsible for the hypoalbuminemia and subsequent edema in these patients.
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