ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?
- A. Discuss the potential for increased bone density.
- B. Discuss the potential for an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
- C. Discuss the potential for a reduced risk of breast cancer.
- D. Discuss the potential for improved mood and energy levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.
2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse leader?
- A. Managing patient care directly
- B. Enforcing healthcare policies
- C. Inspiring and motivating the healthcare team
- D. Ensuring regulatory compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Inspiring and motivating the healthcare team.' Nurse leaders play a crucial role in fostering a positive and collaborative work environment by motivating and inspiring their team members. Choice A is incorrect because managing patient care directly is typically the responsibility of staff nurses, while nurse leaders focus on leadership and coordination. Choice B is incorrect as enforcing healthcare policies is usually a function of compliance officers or administrators. Choice D is also incorrect as ensuring regulatory compliance is important but is usually overseen by compliance officers or regulatory affairs specialists, not specifically the role of a nurse leader.
3. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase your fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, leading to a decreased heart rate. Monitoring heart rate regularly is essential to detect any significant decreases promptly and seek medical attention. While choices A, C, and D may be relevant to the client's overall health, monitoring heart rate is the priority instruction due to the nature of Atenolol's effects. Taking the medication in the morning can be individualized based on the client's needs and preferences. Avoiding foods high in potassium and increasing fluid intake are generally beneficial but not directly related to managing the side effects of Atenolol.
4. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?
- A. Golgi tendon reflex
- B. Myotatic reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?
- A. Hematocrit 45%
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
- D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99