ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What signs and symptoms most likely prompted this patient to initially seek care?
- A. Malaise and fatigue
- B. Severe diarrhea
- C. Intermittent fever
- D. Dizziness and confusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe diarrhea. A patient who has recently returned from a trip to Nepal with a nongovernmental organization and is seeking care for amebiasis would most likely have been prompted by the symptom of severe diarrhea. Amebiasis is an infection caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water sources in developing countries like Nepal. The hallmark symptom of amebiasis is dysentery, which is characterized by severe diarrhea with blood or mucus in the stool. Malaise and fatigue (choice A) are nonspecific symptoms that may accompany many illnesses and are not specific to amebiasis. Intermittent fever (choice C) is not a typical presenting symptom of amebiasis, which primarily manifests with gastrointestinal symptoms. Dizziness and confusion (choice D) are also not typical symptoms associated with amebiasis.
2. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
3. Defense mechanisms ________.
- A. make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, as they begin to act defensively.
- B. are strategies the id uses to try to achieve its desires.
- C. are conscious, intentional attempts to cope effectively with an anxiety-producing event.
- D. help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because defense mechanisms aim to reduce anxiety but can lead to distortion of reality, making them not always beneficial. Choice A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are meant to reduce anxiety, not increase it. Choice B is incorrect because defense mechanisms are not strategies of the id specifically. Choice C is incorrect as defense mechanisms are often unconscious and not always intentional.
4. A healthcare professional is interested in making interdisciplinary work a high priority. Which actions by the professional best demonstrate this skill? (SATA)
- A. Consulting with other disciplines on client care
- B. Coordinating discharge planning for home safety
- C. Participating in comprehensive client rounding
- D. Sharing the care plans with other disciplines
Correct answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Interdisciplinary work in healthcare involves effective communication and collaboration between different disciplines for holistic client care. Consulting with other disciplines allows for sharing expertise, insights, and perspectives to enhance client outcomes. Participating in comprehensive client rounding involves a team-based approach to discuss and plan client care collectively. Sharing nursing care plans with other disciplines ensures that all team members are informed and can contribute to the client's overall well-being. Coordinating discharge planning is important but may not directly demonstrate interdisciplinary collaboration as the other actions do.
5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
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