ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
2. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
- B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
- C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
- D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.
3. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
4. When a client has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, what adverse effect should they monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Anxiety
- C. Sedation
- D. Palpitations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can lead to sedation as an adverse effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness when taking this medication to prevent any potential harm. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated with Dextromethorphan use. While some individuals may experience gastrointestinal upset, central nervous system effects like sedation are more commonly observed.
5. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
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