Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is the report of anorexia. Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Bruising, metallic taste, and muscle pain are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Patients should promptly report symptoms of toxicity to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
• B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
• C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
• D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?

• A. Renal disease
• B. Asthma
• C. Hypotension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

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