ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is to receive Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer. What precaution should the nurse take during the administration of Pamidronate?
- A. Inspect the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site.
- B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
- C. Instruct the client to lie down for 30 minutes after oral administration.
- D. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis for 20 minutes after intramuscular injection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pamidronate is typically administered through IV infusion, which can cause irritation to veins. The nurse should frequently assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during the administration to promptly detect any potential complications related to the infusion. Inspecting the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site (Choice A) is not directly related to IV infusion. Instructing the client to lie down after oral administration (Choice C) is not necessary for IV administration. Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis after an intramuscular injection (Choice D) is not relevant for an IV infusion of Pamidronate.
2. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take furosemide in the morning.
- B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
- C. Avoid foods that are high in magnesium.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.
3. A client is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Leukocytosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Fever
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Leukocytosis refers to an increased white blood cell count and is not directly related to epoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated potassium level, which is not a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Fever is not a typical finding associated with epoetin alfa therapy.
4. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
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