a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma which of the following instructions should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

2. A client is receiving Gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for nephrotoxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is receiving Gentamicin, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels to assess for nephrotoxicity. Gentamicin is known to potentially cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in early detection of any kidney damage or dysfunction. Serum sodium, serum potassium, and serum glucose levels are not directly related to nephrotoxicity caused by Gentamicin, so they are not the appropriate values to monitor in this case.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

4. What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication has a half-life, it refers to the time it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream. This parameter is crucial in understanding the duration of action and dosing intervals for medications in clinical practice. Choice A is incorrect as the half-life is not about how long the medication lasts but about elimination from the body. Choice C is incorrect because the half-life is not about the peak effectiveness of the medicine. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately define the concept of half-life.

5. When educating a client with early Parkinson's disease about pramipexole, what adverse effect should the nurse advise the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations, especially within 9 months of starting the medication, and may necessitate discontinuation. Hallucinations are a serious adverse effect that the client should be aware of and report promptly to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management. Increased salivation (choice B), diarrhea (choice C), and discoloration of urine (choice D) are not common adverse effects associated with pramipexole and are not typically emphasized in client education for this medication.

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